Dr. H. Lew
MCB 32 – Hearing – REVIEW QUESTIONS - 9/24/02

1) Name the structures of the outer, middle and inner ears and give the general function of each structure and/or each group of structures. Draw them. In which bone in the skull are these structures housed?

2) How many organs of Corti do you have?

3) What is the function of the Eustachian (auditory tube)? Why is it important for pressures to be equal on both sounds of the eardrum? Why is it that children are prone to ear infections? What causes the "popping" sound (e.g, when you are in a plane and you swallow and/or yawn)?

4) Sound waves hitting the eardrum set it into motion. Trace the events that occur. Draw them. Begin with the entry of a sound wave into the air canal to the firing of action potentials in the cochlear nerve. Why is it necessary to amplify the "sound waves" hitting the oval window? It is achieved in 2 ways. What are they? Define and/or give the function for: tensor tympani, stapedius. What is the spiral ganglion?

5) Define and/or give function for: spiral ganglion, bony labyrinth, scala vestibuli, scala media (cochlear duct), scala tympani, endolymph, perilymph, basilar membrane, tectorial membrane, oval window, round window. What is the difference between the bony labyrinth, cochlea and cochlear duct?

6) How is information about pitch "encoded"? Loudness? How does one locate sound?

7) Which cranial nerve carries sound to the brain? Trace the auditory pathway: How does information reach the brain? Draw it.

8) What is the difference between the primary sensory (auditory) cortex and association cortex?

9) What is the range of our hearing? How good is it? How is loudness measured?

10) What is the difference between sensorineural deafness and conductive deafness. Give 1-2 causes for each type of deafness.

11) What is otitis media? Otosclerosis?

12) THOUGHT QUESTION: You are experiencing severe ear pain and reduced hearing immediately after deplaning from an international flight. What do you think is causing the pain? Reduced hearing?

Dr. Lew says, "Dear Students, you should also try the TEST YOURSELF and CLINICAL INVESTIGATION questions inside the chapters as well as those at the end of the chapters":

Ch 11:
p. 322, #1-13
p. 323, CONCEPTS: All EXCEPT #1, 7, 9, 10 (2nd part of #10--so do try 1st part of #10) p. 323, APPLY YOUR KNOWLEDGE: #1 & 2

Endocrines – REVIEW QUESTIONS - 10/14/02

1) Define hormone. What is the difference between exocrine vs. endocrine vs. paracrine vs. autocrine? Give examples of each.

2) What general factors control hormone release? Give solid examples of each.

3) What are the 3 classes of hormones? Give examples of each. Steroid hormones are produced in two glands in the body. Which are they?

4) What is the difference between water-soluble and fat-soluble hormones? Give examples of each. Also compare and contrast with respect to: mode of transport in the blood, location of receptor, mechanism of action, time of onset, duration of effect, clearance, etc.

5) What are features of 2nd messenger systems? Why are 2nd messenger systems necessary for water-soluble hormones? What is meant by amplification? What is the benefit of amplification? What is meant by a phosphorylation cascade? How are signal transduction pathways like these turned off?

6) Define "preprohormone." Name an example.

7) What is the difference in the anatomical "connection" between the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary vs. hypothalamus and posterior pituitary?

8) What two hormones are released from the posterior pituitary? What is meant by a neuroendocrine reflex? What is meant by positive feedback? What are examples? Where are the posterior pituitary hormones synthesized? How are they transported from their site of synthesis to their site of storage? What controls their release? What turns off their release?

9) Both aldosterone and ADH help control blood volume. How do they differ in their control? How will the hormones respond (increased or decreased release): you’re lost in the desert, dehydration, severe blood loss (hemorrhaging), excess salt intake, after a workout (sweating), severe drop in blood pressure (due to severe drop in blood volume), low salt intake, drinking one quart of water (e.g., in MCB 32 Lab).

10) What hormones are important for mammary gland function? (There are several.)

11) T/F: The hypothalamus has both long and short neuroendocrine cells. The long ones produce oxytoxin and ADH. The short ones produce release and inhibit-release hormones. (Neuroendocrine cells are modified neurons: Instead of releasing their chemicals into a synapse, they release them into the blood. Besides those in the hypothalamus, what other cells might be called "neuroendocrine"?)

12) What is meant by a "portal circulation?" Where is one found? What are benefits of such a circulation?

13) There are both inhibit-release and release hormones for two of the hormones produced by the anterior pituitary. Which two hormones are they?

14) For each of the hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary: Describe what regulates their release (increased release, or the opposite, decreased release), name the target site(s) and describe the effect(s). Which are the hormones are called "trophic" or "tropic" hormones? Why?

15) Diagram the CRH-ACTH-cortisol system or axis. Do the same for each of the other hypothalamus-anterior pituitary-target gland axes.

16) What two glands are required for life? The parathyroid gland (there’s usually 4 of them, located on the back surface of the thyroid gland) is required for life. What is another one?

17) Which gland is involved in controlling stress? Short-term? Long-term stress? Epinephrine has many target organs and produces different effects in them. How is one hormone able to produce such different effects in different target organs?

18) What is meant by "up-regulation"? "Down-regulation"?

19) What two hormones are produced from the adrenal medulla? Why is the adrenal medulla an extension of the sympathetic system?

20) Norepinephrine and epinephrine are also called the catecholamines. Which catecholamine is produced in the largest amount by the adrenal medulla?

21) What 3 groups of hormones are produced by the adrenal cortex? Name examples of each. Which layer of the adrenal cortex produces what? What controls hormone release from the adrenal cortex?

22) What two hormones control blood Ca 2+ levels? Blood glucose levels? What are blood levels of insulin and glucagon like after breakfast? If you skipped a meal? What do you think are the target tissues of insulin? What is the target organ for glucagon? What are "A" (also called alpha) cells? "B" (also called beta) cells?

23) Why is it important to control blood levels of Na+ (K+), Ca 2+ and glucose?

24) What are parafollicular cells? Follicular cells?

25) What is the difference between T3 and T4? Which hormone is called thyroxine? Which is the active form of the hormone? Which hormone is released in greater amounts from the thyroid gland?

26) What is the normal osmolarity of the blood? (hence, intercellular or interstitial or extracellular fluid)? Ca 2+ levels? Blood glucose levels? What is the difference between moles and osmoles?

27) For each gland, hypothalamus and pituitary (anterior and posterior), adrenal gland (medulla and cortex), thyroid and parathyroid and Islets of Langerhans): Name the hormones produced, their targets, their effects and describe what controls their release (include negative feedback mechanisms).

28) Disease is due to either hypo- or hyper- secretion of hormone from the source tissue or under- or hyper-responsiveness at the target tissue. From knowing the function of the different hormones, what sort of symptoms might you expect to see in hypo- or hyper- secretion of: thyroid hormone, mineralocorticoids, glucocorticoids, growth hormone, ADH, insulin. What sort of symptoms do you expect to see from deficiencies in Ca 2+, vitamin D, dietary iodine?

29) Which hormones are involved in metabolism?

30) Hormones are involved in your dealing with stress, growth and development, reproduction and controlling important blood substances. Give solid examples of each.

THOUGHT QUESTIONS:
31) In an experimental animal the sympathetic preganglionic fibers to the adrenal medulla are cut. What happens to plasma levels of epinephrine at rest and during stress?
32) During pregnancy there is an increase in both the production (by the liver) and the plasma concentration of the major plasma binding protein for the thyroid hormones (Th). This causes a sequence of events involving feedback that results in an increase in the plasma concentration of TH but no evidence of hyperthyroidism. Describe the sequence of events. (The total hormone concentration in plasma is the sum of the free and bound hormone. It is important to realize that only the free hormone can diffuse across the capillaries and affect their target cells.)
33) If all the neural connections between the hypothalamus and pituitary were cut, the secretion of which pituitary hormones would be affected? Which pituitary hormones would not be affected?
34) A person is receiving very large doses of a cortisol-like drug to treat her arthritis. What happens to her own secretion of cortisol?

Looking ahead: Muscle questions in Fox: p. 362: Ques. #1-3, 7-15; p. 363, Concepts: #1, 3, 4, 6, 9, 10; p. 363, Application, #4 (first question).

Ch. 12:
p. 362-363: #1-3, 7-15
p. 363, CONCEPTS: #1, 3, 4, 6, 9, 10
p. 363, APPLY YOUR KNOWLEDGE: #4 (lst question)

Muscle Review Questions – 10/17/02

1) What are the three different types of muscle? How do they differ with respect to location, structure and function? What are the different types of skeletal muscle? How do they differ?

2) Why is skeletal muscle striated? Cardiac? Why not smooth muscle?

2) Define: epi-, peri-, endo-mysium; tendon, series-elastic component; fiber, sarcolemma, sarcoplasmic reticulum, sarcomere; I band, A band, Z disk, Z line, myofibril, microfilaments, thin and thick filaments; T-tubule; dihydropyridine receptor, ryanodine receptor; motor endplate; EPP (endplate potential); muscle twitch; summation; motor unit; excitation-contraction coupling; acetylcholine esterase (AChE).

3) Draw a sarcomere. Next draw a myofibril made up of sarcomeres. Label: A band, I band, Z line. What is myosin made up of? Myosin is a "polar" molecule: What is meant by that? What is the function of the myosin head? What is F-actin made up of? What is G-actin? T/F: Each G-actin has one myosin binding site. What is tropomyosin? Troponin? Draw myosin (thick filament). Draw F-actin (thin filament), all of it. Put them into the sarcomere.

4) What does the sliding filament theory say? Which band(s) shorten(s) during contraction? What about the Z lines?

5) How does contraction occur? Outline the 4 steps in a cross-bridge cycle. Contraction is smooth, not "jerky." Explain.

6) How is Ca 2+ regulatory? What is the"usual" concentration of Ca 2+ in the cell (cytosol of the muscle-fiber)? In the extracellular fluid? In the sarcoplasmic reticulum? High or low? What is the "work" of Ca 2+ - ATPase?

7) Where is ATP used in muscle contraction? (I can think of four different places.)

8) What is rigor mortis? How does it occur?

9) How does curare work? Nerve gas (chemical warfare)? Botox?

10) How is an EPP different from a post-synaptic potential? What ions and channels are involved in producing an EPP? An action potential in muscle?

11) What chemical is released from the motor neuron? How is it removed from the neuromuscular junction?

12) Compare and contrast the events at a synapse vs. a neuromuscular junction.

13) How long is the action potential in muscle? When does contraction begin? How long is it? A single twitch? Summated twitches? How do you summate twitches?

14) Outline all the steps: Begin with excitation of a motor neuron and end with muscle contraction.

15) How does muscle relax?

16) Define: isometric contraction, isotonic contraction.

17) What factors affect the strength or force of contraction? Explain how each factor affects the amount of force developed. At the level of a single muscle fiber? Whole-muscle?

18) What factors affect the speed of contraction? How? At the level of a single muscle fiber? Whole-muscle?

19) T/F: For a muscle to have an effect on a joint, it (its tendon) must cross the joint.

THOUGHT QUESTIONS:
20) If the T-tubules of a skeletal muscle are disconnected from the sarcolemma, will action potentials still trigger a contraction? Give reasons.

21) If an isolated skeletal muscle is placed in a solution that contained no calcium ions, will the muscle still contract when it is stimulated (a) directly by depolarizing its membrane? (b) By stimulating the nerve to the muscle? (What would happen if it was a smooth muscle?) What if it was a solution containing curare? Dissolved nerve gas? Botox?

22) Myasthenia gravis is a disease where the body produces antibodies against its own motor end plate ACh
receptors. ACh release from the nerve terminals is normal. What symptoms might you see?

23) Polio attacks and destroys motor neurons. What symptoms might you expect to see?

24) Muscular dystrophy is a sex-linked disease. The gene is located on the X chromosome. (Girls have two X chromosomes and boys only one. Girls are XX and boys XY. A girl with one abnormal X chromosome and one normal one will not develop the disease. This is why the disease is so much more common in boys.) (For those of you in Bio 1A, the mutant allele is recessive to the "normal" allele.) The gene codes for a protein known as dystrophin, which is absent or present in a nonfunctional form in patients with the disease. Dystrophin is located on the inner surface of the sarcolemma in normal muscle. It resembles a cytoskeletal protein and may be involved in maintaining the structural integrity of the sarcolemma or some other membrane component such as ion channels. Question: What symptoms might you expect to see in a patient with the disease?


Answers to THOUGHT QUESTIONS# 22, 23 & 24:

22) Myasthenia gravis: Muscle fatigue and weakening.

23) Polio: Muscle paralysis and may result in death due to respiratory failure. (The diaphragm is the main muscle of respiration. It is a skeletal muscle.)

24) Muscular dystrophy: Progressive degeneration of skeletal (and cardiac) muscle, weakening the muscle and leading ultimately to death from respiratory or cardiac failure. (Symptoms usually appear at about 2 to 6 years of age, and most people with the disease do not live much beyond the age of 20.)

Dr. H. Lew
MCB 32 – Cardiovascular System Review Questions – 10/22/02

Questions in Fox: Ch. 13: p. 405, #1-9, 17
p. 406: #1, 2, 4, 5, 9
Ch. 14: p. 444: #1-7, 9, 12, 14-17, 20
p. 445, Concepts: #2-8, #9 (diuretics question)
p. 446, Application: #1, 3, 4

1) What are functions of the cardiovascular system? How would you design a circulatory system? What should it able to do?

2) What is the function of the heart?

3) Name the major blood vessels that enter and leave the heart. Be sure to name the heart chambers and the two sets of heart valves. What is the function of the heart valves?

4) What are the heart sounds due to? (Do not confuse the heart sounds, LUB-DUP, with the sounds of Korotkoff, which are used to measure blood pressure by the auscultatory method.)

5) Define: systemic circulation, pulmonary circulation, artery, vein, cardiac cycle, systole, diastole, contractile cardiac muscle.

6) Are there any motor nerves to the heart? How does the heart start its own action potentials? Name the parts of the conducting system of the heart and give their location. What is meant by automaticity? Trace the path of excitation through the heart. What is the significance of the AV delay?

7) What is the pre-potential (pacemaker potential)? What is due to? What ions and what ion channels? How does the sympathetic nervous system affect it? What is the mechanism? The parasympathetic nervous system? What is meant by a chronotropic effect?

8) Compare and contrast a skeletal-muscle action potential vs. a contractile cardiac-muscle heart action potential. Name the ions and ion channels involved. What is the significance of the long refractory period in the heart action potential?

9) Describe the EKG. What is happening in the P wave? QRS complex? T wave?

10) What is the normal cardiac output? How do you calculate it? How is it regulated? Define: stroke volume, end-diastolic volume, venous return.

11) Define contractility.

12) Outline excitation-contraction coupling in the heart.

13) What is the Frank-Starling law?

14) What is the effect of the sympathetic nervous system (including the adrenal medulla) on heart contractility? There are at least three ways in which the sympathetic nervous system increases heart contractility. Outline them: Begin with norepinephrine (epinephrine) binding to the receptor. End with an increase in contractility. What is an ionotropic effect?

15) Define and give their function: elastic artery (example?), muscular artery (example?) arteriole, capillary, venule and vein. What is the function of valves in veins? T/F: There are more valves in the veins in the leg than those in the arm. What is the skeletal-muscle pump? Respiratory pump? How do they assist with venous return?

16) What is the difference in the structure between an artery and a vein? Name the three layers that make up the blood vessel wall, from outer to inner. How do the layers change, as you follow the vascular tree, from elastic artery to muscular artery to arteriole to capillary to venule to vein?

17) What factors control blood flow? What is the function of arterioles? How do they regulate blood flow? How are they involved in controlling systemic blood pressure? What are local factors that control blood flow? What is meant by active hyperemia?

18) What are the factors that determine exchange (O2, CO2, glucose, etc.) across the capillary? What are the factors or forces that control the exchange of fluid across the capillary? What is the difference between interstitial (extracellular) fluid (ECF) and lymph? What is the lymphatic system? What is the mechanism of flow? What factors aid flow? What is the thoracic duct? Right lymphatic duct?

19) Define: systolic blood pressure, diastolic blood pressure. What are the units for blood pressure? What is the formula for MAP? What is meant by the pulse pressure? How is the MAP regulated? What is a baroreceptor? Where are they located?

20) What is Poiseuille’s Law? What factors affect resistance to blood flow?

21) How does your body respond to an increase in blood pressure? A decrease?

22) How does your body respond to hemorrhaging? Do the following increase, decrease or stay the same? Baroreceptor firing? Heart rate? Stroke volume? Cardiac output? Arteriole constriction? Total peripheral resistance? Venous return? Capillary filtration (arterial side)? Capillary reabsorption (venous side)? Aldosterone? ANF? Sympathetic activity? Parasympathetic activity?

23) How does your body respond to exercise? Do the following increase, decrease or stay the same? Why or why not? Blood flow to the exercising muscles? Skin? Heart? Brain? Total peripheral resistance? Heart rate? Stroke volume? Heart contractility? Circulating levels of epinephrine? Blood glucose? Cardiac output? Blood pressure? Venous return? End-diastolic volume? Sympathetic activity? Parasympathetic activity? What happens to local blood flow? How?

24) What is the main determinant, long-term, of blood pressure?

THOUGHT QUESTIONS:
25) Which would cause a greater increase in resistance to flow—a doubling of blood viscosity or a halving of tube radius?
26) If all plasma membrane Ca 2+ channels in contractile cardiac muscle cells were blocked with a drug, what would happen to the muscle’s action potentials and contraction?
27) A person with a heart rate of 40 has no P waves but normal QRS complexes. What is the explanation?
28) Calculate the mean arterial pressure in a person whose diastolic and systolic pressure are, respectively, 80 and 120 mm Hg.






Answers to THOUGHT QUESTIONS:
25) A halving of tube radius. Resistance is directly proportional to blood viscosity but inversely proportional to the fourth power of tube radius.
26) The plateau of the action potential would not occur. Contraction would not occur. Contractile cardiac muscle requires two sources of Ca 2+ in order to contract. Both sources, SR and extracellular, are necessary.
27) The SA node is not functioning. The ventricles are being driven by a pacemaker near the AV node.
28) [Formula: MAP = Pd + 1/3 (Ps – Pd)]

Study questions for chapter 19, lecture of October 29
Review Activitites pages 631-632: 1, 2, 6, 7, 8, 15 (look at figures 19.2, 19.3, 19.5, 19.8 and table 19.6)

PS A question that came up in class for which neither the bok nor I had an answer was "How is it that high glucose levels in the blood cause tissue and cell damage?"

I have been told that one explanation for this effect is that high glucose levels shift the equilibrium for "glycosylation reactions", in which sugar residues (in this case glucose) become attached to certain amino acid side chains, thereby altering the enzyme properties and signaling properties of the proteins. It seems reasonable to me that such changes would affect the cellular processes and could cause all sorts of problems for cells and tissues.

November 12, 2002

Respiratory Sample Questions F02
MCB32

True/False

1. Internal respiration occurs most frequently in the conducting zone.
2. Air flows into the lungs when atmospheric pressure is greater than alveolar pressure.
3. The pressure inside the lung increases as the diaphragm contracts.
4. Lung capacities are sums of two or more lung volumes.
5. Forced expiratory volume tests can be used to differentiate between normal lungs and lungs in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
6. The partial pressure of oxygen decreases at high altitude because the percentage of oxygen in the air is decreased.
7. Increasing the partial pressure of a gas increases the amount of that gas which will dissolve in a fluid.
8. The rhythmicity center is located within the medulla oblongata.
9. An increase in the arterial partial pressure of CO2 will increase arterial plasma pH.
10. Hypocapnia would result in a rise in the pH of arterial blood.
11. Increasing arterial blood pH increases the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen.

Multiple Choice

1. Gas exchange occurs within the:

A The bronchioles
B The conducting zone
C The alveoli
D All of the above

2. Which of the following is true?

A Blood in the pulmonary veins is low in oxygen
B Blood in the pulmonary arteries is high in carbon dioxide
C The oxygen concentration of inspired air is higher than that of alveolar air
D All of the above

3. During inspiration:

A Alveolar pressure exceeds atmospheric pressure
B The pressure difference between the lung and the pleural space decreases
C The diaphragm relaxes
D The pressure inside the lungs is less than atmospheric pressure

4. The functional residual capacity:

A Is the same as the expiratory reserve volume
B Includes the tidal volume
C Includes the inspiratory reserve volume
D Is the volume at the end of expiration

5. The amount of gas dissolved in the blood:

A Is directly proportional to the solubility of the gas
B Increases at higher altitudes
C Is described primarily by Boyle’s law (PV=nRT)
D All of the above

6. Hyperventilation is stimulated by:

A Hypocapnia
B Low blood CO2
C Low blood O2
D An increase in blood pH

7. Central chemoreceptors are excited when:

A Arterial oxygen increases
B Arterial blood pH increases
C Arterial carbon dioxide increases
D All of the above

8. Chemoreceptors in the carotid bodies respond to:

A Changes in arterial carbon dioxide
B Changes in arterial oxygen
C Changes in arterial pH
D All of the above

9. Inceased concentrations of 2,3 DPG

A Shift the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to the right
B Increase the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen
C Result in the production of red blood cells.
D Are caused by increases in the amount of hemoglobin

10. Which of the following changes would occur during exercise:

A Increased plasma CO2 and O2
B Decreased ventilation
C Decreased delivery to muscles
D Increased oxygen extraction by muscles.

11. Acclimatization to altitude:

A Stimulates increased blood cell synthesis
B Decreases ventilation
C Increases the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen
D All of the above
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Answers

True/False

1.F 2.T 3.F 4.T 5.T 6.F 7.T 8.T 9.F 10.T 11.T

Multiple Choice

1.C 2.C 3.D 4.D 5.A 6.C 7.C 8.D 9.A 10.D 11.A

Renal Sample Questions

True/False

1. The main function of the kidneys is the regulation of the intracellular fluid.
2. Urine enters the urethra before entering the bladder.
3. The concentration of glucose in the nephron at the end of the proximal tubule is less than the concentration of glucose on plasma.
4. The proximal convoluted tubule reabsorbs approximately 15% of water and ions entering it.
5. The water permeability of the proximal tubule is regulated by antidiuretic hormone.
6. An increase in the plasma concentration of ADH will increase water excretion
7. An increase in blood volume will trigger an increase in plasma ADH levels
8. An increase in aldosterone secretion will trigger an increase in potassium excretion by the kidney
9. Granular cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus secrete renin.
10. A decrease in renin secretion will lead to vasodilation of blood vessels.
11. Carbonic anhydrase is needed to convert CO2 to hydrogen and bicarbonate.
12. One of the main urinary pH buffers is ammonia.

Multiple Choice

1. The actions of the kidney include regulation of:

A. Blood plasma pH
B. Blood plasma volume
C. Blood plasma electrolyte concentration
D. All of the above
5. Urine is transported to the urinary bladder by the

A. Ureter
B. Urethra
C. Nephron
D. Vasa recta
5. Prior to entering the collecting ducts, nephron tubular fluid must pass through:

A. Bowman’s capsule
B. Loop of Henle
C. Proximal convoluted tubule
D. All of the above
5. Glucose must diffuse through which of the following at the glomerulus:

A. Fenestrations
B. Podocyte extensions
C. Basement membrane
D. All of the above
5. The majority of reabsorption occurs in the:

A. Collecting duct
B. Distal convoluted tubule
C. Loop of Henle
D. Proximal tubule
5. The tubular filtrate has the greatest osmolarity:

A. As it enters the proximal convoluted tubule
B. As it enters the distal convoluted tubule
C. At the tip of the loop of Henle
D. As it exits the proximal tubule
5. Inhibition of the function(s) of the descending limb of the loop of Henle will result in::

A. Decreased water reabsorption
B. Increased Na+ reabsorption
C. Decreased Na+ reabsorption
D. Increased water reabsorption
5. Countercurrent multiplication occurs by the actions of the:

A. Vasa recta
B. Peritubular capillaries
C. Collecting duct
D. Loop of Henle
5. Antidiuretic Hormone:

A. Stimulates water reabsorption by the kidney
B. Increases the permeability of water in the collecting ducts
C. Is secreted in response to dehydration
D. All of the above
5. Excessive aldosterone secretion would induce:

A. Decreased plasma potassium
B. Decreased plasma sodium
C. Decreased plasma chloride
D. No change in plasma ion balance
5. The presence of renin secreting tumors may cause:

A. Hypertension
B. Increased aldosterone secretion
C. Increased renal sodium reabsorption
D. All of the above
5. Hemorrhage (blood loss) would induce:

A. Increased renin secretion
B. Inhibition of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)
C. Decreased ADH secretion
D. All of the above
5. Renal regulation of blood plasma pH relies on:

A. The actions of the ammonia buffer
B. The actions of a potassium buffer
C. The actions of the bicarbonate buffer
D. None of the above
5. If plasma pH increased (a condition called alkalosis):

A. The kidney maximally reabsorbs bicarbonate
B. The kidney excretes bicarbonate
C. Excess H+ will enter the nephron
D. Tubular carbonic anhydrase is inhibited



________________________________________________________________________


Answers

True/False

1.F 2.F 3.T 4.F 5.F 6.F 7.F 8.T 9.T 10.T 11.T 12.T

Multiple Choice

1.D 2.A 3.D 4.D 5.D 6.C 7.A 8.D 9.D 10.A 11.D 12.A 13.C 14.B

 

Dr. Miller: Sample Questions GI System F02

True/False

1. The gastrointestinal tract generates amino acids from proteins by hydrolysis
2. Exocrine secretions of the digestive system include enzymes and bicarbonate.
3. Absorptive epithelial cells are located within the submucosa.
4. Inhibiting the actions of the parietal cells would stimulate protein digestion.
5. Digestion of proteins begins in the stomach.
6. An inhibitor of brush border enzymes would decrease protein digestion.
7. Diarrhea can result from an increase in the osmolarity in the ileum.
8. Bile is synthesized by the liver and stored in the gallbladder.
9. Inhibiting cholecystokinin would decrease pancreatic HCO3- secretion.
10. The vagus nerve stimulates gastrin secretion during the cephalic phase of gastric function.
11. Lipids are initially transported in the lymphatic system before entering the blood.
12. Monosaccharide transport involves transport by the Na+-K+ ATPase across the G.I. lumen side of the epithelial cells.
13. Inadequate bile secretion will limit fat absorption.

Multiple Choice

1. Functions of the digestive system include all of the following except:

A. Mucus secretion
B. Hormone secretion
C. Absorption
D. Hormone degradation.
5. Which of the following is not part of the gastrointestinal tract?

A. Pharynx
B. Liver
C. Small intestine
D. Esophagus
5. Pepsin would have the greatest activity:

A. Immediately after secretion into the stomach.
B. Immediately after entering the duodenum
C. When the pH of the chyme is greater than 3
D. When the pH of the chyme is less than 3
5.
6. The primary function of the large intestine is:

A. Absorption of water
B. Secretion of HCO3-
C. Hormone degradation
D. Degrading toxins.
5. Cirrhosis is a disorder in which the liver malfunctions. Cirrhosis may result in:

A. Decreased circulating plasma albumin.
B. Increased bile synthesis
C. Increased plasma glucose
D. Increased plasma fatty acids
5. Inhibition of exocrine pancreatic secretions would result in:

A. Decreased insulin secretion
B. Decreased bile synthesis and secretion
C. Production of an acidic chyme.
D. Stimulation of brush border enzyme activity.
5. During the intestinal phase regulating gastric function:

A. The vagus nerve stimulates gastrin secretion
B. Stomach distension stimulates acid secretion
C. Autonomic nerves are stimulated by the smell of food.
D. Gastric emptying is inhibited.
5. The enzyme whose optimum would most likely be at a basic (high) pH is:

A. Pancreatic lipase
B. Pepsin
C. Salivary amylase
D. Carbonic anhydrase.
5. Hydrolysis of disaccharides occurs by the actions of enzymes found:

A. In the saliva
B. In the stomach
C. In the brush border of the small intestine
D. In the gastric submucosa
5.
6. Enterohepatic circulation involves all the following except:

A. Liver
B. Esophagus
C. Bile duct
D. Sinusoids


 


Answers

True/False

1.T 2.T 3.F.4.F 5.T 6.T 7.T 8.T 9.F 10.T 11.T 12.F 13.T

Multiple Choice

1.D 2.B 3.D 4.A 5.A 6.C 7.D 8.A 9.C 10.B


Dr. Miller: Reproductive Sample Questions

True/False

1. Spermatozoa are produced from spermatogonia through a process that involves mitosis and not meiosis.
2. The human male determines the sex of his offspring.
3. Deletion of the SRY gene (on the Y chromosome) that encodes for testis determining factor would cause male fetuses to develop as females.
4. GnRH is released from the hypothalamus.
5. Semen contains fructose.
6. The endometrium is the inner most layer of the uterus.
7. The follicular phase is characterized by rising concentrations of estrogen.
8. Oral contraceptives prevent ovulation by inhibiting the release of LH.
9. Fertilization occurs in the uterus.

 

Multiple Choice

1. In Klinefelter’s syndrome an individual has an extra X chromosome. A person who is XXY would:*

A. have female external genitalia
B. have male external genitalia
C. not produce testosterone
D. not producte estrogen

* You do not need to know what Klinefelter’s syndrome is in order to be able to answer this question.
5. Within the testes:

A. Leydig cells synthesize gastrin
B. Sertoli cells form an epithelial layer around the lumen of the semineferous tubules.
C. LH acts on Sertoli cells
D. 60% of the semen is produced.
5. Spermatogenesis:

A. produces only one graafian follicle.
B. occurs only during the luteal phase
C. occurs in the cytoplasm of a Leydig cell
D. requires testosterone
5. After spermatozoa are release into the lumen of the seminiferous tubules, further maturation of sperm occurs. This maturation of sperm is most likely to occur in:

A. Leydig cell
B. seminal vesicles
C. epididymis
D. prostate gland
5. Ova are fertilized in the:

A. ovary
B. fallopian tubes
C. uterus
D. vagina
5. In the female menstrual cycle:

A. ovulation is stimulated by decreasing concentrations of progesterone
B. the phase before ovulation is referred to as the luteal phase
C. progesterone secretion starts to rise just after ovulation.
D. the luteal phase is characterized by a number of FSH surges.
5. Fertilization is initiated by:

A. sperm tail
B. sperm acrosome
C. sperm mitochondria
D. fructose in semen
5. The inner most layer in the uterus is called the:

A. myometrium
B. perimetrium
C. endometrium
D. none of the above
5. Which of the following cells are not found in a graafian follicle?

A. theca cells
B. granulosa cells
C. oocyte
D. All of the above are found in a graafian follicle


 

 

 


Answers

True/False

1.F 2.T 3.T 4.T 5.T 6.T 7.T 8.T 9.F

Multiple Choice

1.B 2.B 3.D 4.C 5.B 6.C 7.B 8.C 9.D